In Full Life

What Is A Moor?

4/16/2019

There is a lot of confusion about Moors. Who we are. What do we believe? Where do we come from, Moor means black etc... and they are all valid questions... with easily provable answers.

In this post, I am coming from the books because I want you all to see the hidden history of America for yourselves. When I post on Instagram and Facebook, I remind people to not take my word for it... but to go and do their own research so they can know for themselves.

Unfortunately, people would rather hold onto beliefs rather than put in the study to find themselves approved. So I figured, what the hell... just show them the truth.

After that, I am no longer responsible for your beliefs, nor will I entertain useless debates, or fruitless arguments any longer. There is nothing to debate about the truth. It needs no validation.

With that being said, the truth will be revealed for your own eyes to see.

Definition taken from The New Larned History, Volume 7., Copyright 1923. From this excerpt, we can see that the Moors, their history, and conquests were very well known to historians of the time. Moors are not some new phenomenon that the Prophet Noble Drew Ali made up. Neither is our illustrious, and sometimes dark history. People love to say that Moors and Moorish Science are created folklore. I guess if you believed that, you can start putting that nonsense to bed.

Derivatives of Moor, Nature Knows No Color-Line, by J.A. Rogers

In this excerpt from "Nature Knows No Color-Line", by J.A. Rogers, we can see the MANY derivatives of Moor.

Called by the Romans FROM THE COLOR of the People, Mauritania, the COUNTRY of dark-complexioned people. This excerpt is from Webster's 1828 Dictionary of the English Language.

So we can see that the Moors were called Moors because of their complexion, not because Moor literally meant black. Black became synonymous with Moor for this reason, but we were not known as "Black" people... as the evidence suggests that Romans called so called "black" people Moors.

Hopefully this makes it easier to understand that Moor does not mean black. Moor is derived from Moroccan. We are the descendants of the Al Moroccans (Ancient Moabites). who settled this land called America, or Al Moroc, or the Maghreb Al Aqsa (Morocco, the extreme, or farthest West) before the great quake broke up ancient Asia. In modern terms, it is known as Pangea. This is bloodline thing... not a name claim. We are the people of the earth aka land aka the plane(t). We all were called Moors.

I will dig into that later too. I am even going tie in kmt (Kemet) to the Moors, as a lot of people who study Kemetic Science swear that there were no Moors in Hikuptah ( Ancient Egypt). Nonsense! Ta Muuri means "land of Muurs".

Before The Mayflower, A History of Black America by Lerone Bennett, Jr. - 1964, Page. 40

Above is an excerpt from Before The Mayflower, A History of Black America, by Lerone Bennett, Jr. This is from page 40.

As you can see, it clearly says, "the first blacks were called Blackamoors, Moors...". Not only that, Bennett also points out the fact that the first colonists had no concept of themselves being white, and according to the legal documents were identified as Englishmen and/or Christians.

Now why is that fact so important? Because before the existence of the United States of America, the colonies were named the United Colonies of New England. The name change didn't happen until Articles of Association in 1777. So if in 1643, they were the United Colonies of New England, and the first colony was founded at Jamestown, Virginia in 1607, 36 years prior, it proves 1.) the colonists didn't come here as "white" people or Americans. They came as who they were... Englishmen (of England) and Christians. And 2.) they were referring to so called "black" people as Blackamoors or Moors before they even had a concept of being white... which is a legal status.. not a race of people, but I will get into that later.

Now to take it a step further, Bennett doesn't specify where Blackamoors or Moors come from, only that the first blacks were called Blackamoors or Moors. And we know that the original Americans were FOUND HERE by Europeans, meaning they were already here when Europeans arrived. That means when the first Englishmen/Christians came to America, they called the original Americans Blackamoors or Moors because that's what they called the people that looked them in their homelands. We were known as Moors all over the world up until the 1500's, but I am going to show you better than I can tell you.

Up next, Nature Knows No Color-Line by J.A. Rogers.

Picture of Queen Charlotte Sophia, Consort of George III, and grandmother to Queen Victoria from a portrait by Thomas Frye (1719-1762). She was a German Princess.

Nature Knows No Color-Line, by J.A. Rogers - 1952

So we can see here why "black" face is even a thing among Europeans, especially among the British. They used to darken their faces so that they might pass better for Moors. Once again, we see again that British referred to us as Moors, and for obvious reason, used to "blacken" themselves for PROTECTION!

Notice Rogers quotes David MacRitchie, an Irishman, and the author of Ancient & Modern Britons, Volumes 1 & 2. And we will get into that later... but the significance of that is that MacRitchie is a European giving up the truth.

I'm going to show you what Black Mail means AT LAW, so that you will have a better understanding of who the Moors were, and why Europeans had to disguise themselves.

Black's Law Dictionary, 4th Edition

Blackmail was TRIBUTE paid by English Dwellers... to influential chieftains, of Scotland, as a condition of securing immunity from marauders and border thieves. So who were the chieftains? Moors!

Here are excerpts from an article written on King Kenneth Dubh - Black King of Scotland. Then will we will look at the definition of Black Rents and connect the dots there.

Kenneth the Niger', means "the black man"... meaning his complexion... a description... not his race. We know that Kenneth's NATIONALITY was Scottish or a Scot. Kenneth would also be called a what...? A Moor. Let's continue.

This excerpt is pretty much self explanatory. What other NORTH AFRICAN warriors traveled into Europe through Iberia and conquered, joined in many cultures (amalgamated ... skin lightning), and held power and position? Moors!

I want to also call attention the J.A. Rogers reference since I am using his literature to peel back some the layers.

J.A. Rogers was a Jamaican-American (nationality) immigrant that is revered as renowned scholar albeit he had NO FORMAL EDUCATION. A lot of people would look down on that in this day in age, but the fact is he was widely recognized for his professionalism and intellect throughout his career. So much so that he was a member of Paris (France) Society for Anthropology, The American Geographical Society, and the Academy of Political Science. And on top of that he also spoke Spanish, French, Italian, and German. He even attended the coronation of Emperor Haile Selassie. I think he is qualified... even you feel I am not. And please keep in mind, I am showing you books that were written be I was even born.

Kenneth the Moor ruled Scotland for 8 years! Now look at how the transfer of power was conducted up until his death... a transference of power from one family TO ANOTHER. What does that tell you? Blackamoors, or Moors were running things in Scotland. And who do you think the chieftains would be? Other Moors! Are you starting to get the picture? Moors were running Scotland, over 6 centuries before the English/Christians even set foot in America. What do you think those English people called so called "black" people 1000 years ago? We already know black was not used until the 1500's. Moors.

And that's just a piece of Moorish-Scot history. The Kings of Alban ruled the whole island at one point. Ever heard of the Bruts? They were the Brutish Moors! The original people of Britain. I'll break that down later with excerpts from David MacRitchie's books Ancient & Modern Britons Volumes 1 & 2.

Now let's get back to Black Rents and why the British were disguising themselves in black face to better pass as Moors.

Black's Law Dictionary, 4th Edition

As we can see above, Black Rents is old English Law, and the first definition is "rents reserved in work". What does that mean? Well, if you had to disguise yourself to look like another people, what would you being doing? Trying to evade capture correct? And if you were caught, a rent served in work would be called what... servitude... slavery? More than likely. It implies that you would be held until your debt was paid. Sounds like slavery to me. And yes, Europeans were the FIRST SLAVES! Slave is derived from Slav. Slavs are of Slavonic origin, and there name literally meant SLAVE!

I take no comfort in practice of slavery, whether it's Moors or Europeans at leading the narrative. The enslavement of other people is wrong, and the Moors who had a hand in that were not the so called "black" Moors... but the Arab Moors... who are the sons and daughters of the originals aka amalgamated Moors. My point in referencing that Europeans were the first slaves is so that you can have a clearer understanding of how our story was flip flopped around, and intentionally hidden as to keep Moors "in the dark".

Also note that it was the Moors who brought civilization to Europeans. Before the Moors, Europe was in the Dark Ages. The Renaissance was a result of the Moors bringing "light" (knowledge), and civilization to Europe. Remember that 711 jingle... "Oh thank heavens for 711?" That was the year that the Moors crossed the Iberian Peninsula into Europe under the Muslim Moor Tariq Ibn Zayid.

Now let's backtrack a bit to that Egyptian connection! Now I said earlier that the Moors were in Ancient Egypt. Now we are going to see what history has to say.

100 Amazing Facts About The Negro, by J.A. Rogers - 1934

From an excerpt of 100 Amazing Facts About The Negro, by J.A. Rogers. Copyright 1934, we can see that Ancient Egyptian connection... and we also see that Negro, Negrito, and Nigrita means "people of the land". It was until Latin influence that Negro came to mean black. We also see that black and colored, and white are European words. ETHIOPIAN AND MOOR WERE POPULARLY USED TO DESCRIBE THE "SO CALLED BLACKS" until 1500.

I think we should explore the works of David MacRitchie at this point. I want to stay true to the topic and show you the documented evidence so you don't have to take my word for it.

This blog post already contains 1000' upon 1000's of hours of research and invaluable information just from the authors. I am just simply preparing a snippet of what is out there.

Ancient and Modern Britons Vol. 1, by David MacRitchie - 1884

Ancient and Modern Britons Vol. 1 was written in 1884. There isn't anyone reading this post that was alive was this book was published. These FACTS have been known by historians and scholars for years. You were just never "taught" them.

On page 357, we can see that in 1681, "the [Indians] of New England" or "Moors" are what the indigenous people of AMERICA were referred to as... on the account of William Penn. Penn said the Moors were "as black as gypsies".

Now let's nip the [Indian] thing in the bud. Indians are indigenous to India, not New England. So why are the people of the Americas called Indians? Ever heard of a man named Christopher Columbus? Well, there is your responsible party.

Columbus misnomer-ed the people he found in the Atlantis Islands (Caribbean Islands) Indians, and the islands "The West Indies" because he thought he had arrived in India. Subsequently, the term Indian began being applied to those Arawaks, who were Moors, and the eventually carried throughout the Americas. This is where the "African" {modern definition} slaves began being called the Negro, which transliterates back to the Latin Niger nigr- black. This distinction is important because the Moors weren't classified as Negros. Moors are FREE WHITE PERSONS. Check it out (below).

Also, Columbus did not navigate the ships, Moors did. Pedro the Moor, and his 2 brothers navigated the Nina, the Pinta, and the Santa Maria. Not commonly known is that the Moors intentionally took Columbus to the wrong part of the world to protect their own interests in Sindh trade routes... which the Spanish were after, and it ended up backfiring badly for the indigenous Americans. That's mainly the reason we are in the mess we are in today.

Black's Law Dictionary, 4th Edition

You ever hear us Moors say that white and black are a legal status? Well here is the proof... in black and white.. according to the law.

Remember the excerpt from page 40 in Before the Mayflower, where it said that the first colonists had no concept of themselves being white, and from the LEGAL documents they were classified as Englishmen or Christian? Well, the Naturalization Act of 1870 changed all that. The act made all persons belonging to the European race (European word), and their descendants, and such descendants in other countries (abroad) to which they have emigrated. Do you see the plan? To get the status of Free White Person (Political) and then have some of their kin emigrate... "to leave one's own country (Now America) in order to permanently settle in another". So they become Naturalized Americans, acquire the status of a Free White Person, a standing(at law), that gives them the diplomacy, and the same rights and freedoms as the other Free White People of the world. Rights and freedoms they've never had. Not only that, now they could emigrate to other countries with the status of a Free White Person, and now because of that diplomacy, use it to create the infrastructure for foreign policy unmolested abroad as people of a "higher class". Political status.

Remember, the United States was built on foreign relations, and commerce. It was Morocco that first recognized the United States as a nation. It wasn't until the late 1800's that the Europeans started calling themselves "White" people. Remember, in the 1600's they weren't even calling themselves white people because they had no concept of themselves being white. There is a reason for that... it's because throughout their history, the White people were the Moors.

Now I am going to show the Black's Law Dictionary, 4th Edition definition of STATUS and STANDING. Then I am going to show you from a legal perspective, the definition of legal standing.

Black's Law Dictionary, 4th Edition

Status is "your standing", "your state", or "your condition". Remember when I said that Europeans used to the be {modern definition} of slaves, their status now as a Free White Person legally (on paper... not inherent) gave them standing (see below).

Your LEGAL relation to the rest of the COMMUNITY. The RIGHTS, DUTIES, CAPACITIES, and INCAPACITIES which determine a person to a given CLASS. Here is the status of Free White Person (which is a status of nobility as well) giving them rights, duties, capacities, incapacities, and placing them in the "noble" class. Out of slavery, into freedom. Legally, but here is where the law is specific. Pay attention.

While the term IMPLIES relation, it is not a MERE relation. To imply means "to strongly suggest the truth or existence of", a relation, meaning it's not an inherent relation, not a relation by descend-ency, but one of legality. Then it goes on to say it is not a mere relation. The definition of mere is "being nothing more than", as in nothing other that what's specified. So they, Europeans, recognized the power of having the status of a Free White Person. This is where Europeans recognized their next chance to exercise the power of the pen. At the same time they are legally claiming a status that hadn't belonged to them originally, and exposing their newfound status is not one of natural inheritance, they are also boasting to the fact that their newfound status now places them legally among the affairs or men. To say their relation is not a mere relation, means it is not basic, or bare, meager, or minimal. And it's not. It is really a huge accomplishment for their people, and now you can see why they defend so vehemently. They secured the American Dream. To become, in truth, the de facto (in a legal sense) people of the land, and the rights to inheritance of land, tenements, and hereditaments. This is why they call it REAL Estate. They acquired the land through escheat. How? By the Moors abandoning their estate ( the Americas), by agreeing to become Indian, negro, black, colored, African- American etc... by us agreeing to become a people WE ARE NOT, we legally are declared legally, civilly dead, or Civiliter Mortuus. The loss of your CIVIL RIGHTS and capacities. Dead in the view of the law.

Can you now see the flip side of civil rights? How do foreigners come to your country, turn you into something different, then make themselves you, endow themselves with all of the inherent unalienable rights you possessed (and still possess lawfully and legally) as the rightful heirs and true de jure people of the land, turn around and pass legislation to give you back the same civil rights you were naturally endowed with at birth? Think about that Moors.

Now I mentioned escheat, and escheat is "the reversion of property to the STATE, or in feudal law, to a lord, on the OWNER'S dying without LEGAL HEIRS". How is that important? Status is standing, STATE, or condition. Estate, and state are synonymous at law, and we also see that status is synonymous with state. Escheat is "reversion of property to the state, or estate (synonymous) , or to a lord... on the owner's dying..." ... let's stop right there. Well who are the rightful owner's? The Moors. Who died without legal heirs? The Moors? How? The Moors abandoned their estate by agreeing to become Christian, negro, black, and colored. The Moors then became Civiliter Mortuus, or civilly dead in the eyes of the law, by accepting the CODES NOIR placed upon them (by the United States of America), thus rending them heir less to their own estate, which gave the new naturalized Americans legal grounds (not lawful... as in by inherent right to do so) to acquire the estate through escheat, because you're now out of standing, out of your natural state, and your condition is, in the eyes of law; dead. Your estate legally, post de facto, although not lawfully legal ( by Divine right), reverts to the NEW HEIRS of the land. In a nutshell. Whew!!!

Is the picture getting any clearer? It should be. This is why learning to read, etymology, morphology, both history and law together, and having Knowledge of Self is so important. Being able to read the language of the law is extremely important, but if you do not have the right concepts (truth of history), your lens will be skewed.

Now we are going to move on and look at standing in brief. I pretty much covered it with status, but I want to highlight some key points that correlate with the theme of what happened, and what is still happening.

Black's Law Dictionary, 4th Edition

Standing (at law) means one's place in the community in estimation of others; (grade, or rank) his relative position and social (status: political) commercial (commerce i.e. domestic and abroad, and foreign policy - international trade), or moral relations (duties to family and community [also a state, country, or nation], his repute or reputation (character), grade, or rank (class).

Standing and status synonymous. Status and state synonymous. State and Estate synonymous. That means as the lawful heirs, we are also states. Status means state. Well what is a state?

Black's Law Dictionary, 4th Edition

A State is firstly a noun. A state is "a people permanently occupying a FIXED territory...". People is a noun. The definition of people is "human beings in general, OR considered collectively". A human being is a person. A state is a people. People are human beings. Human beings are persons (individuals). So people are "human beings in general", who are also persons (individuals), which would make them standing (at law) states, estates (remember status). People are also human beings considered collectively, and we see that a STATE is also a people.

At law means according to or concerned with the laws of a country (nation). A country is also considered a nation. So the "community" is what? A community of nations.

So nation consists of individual states (people, who are human beings, who are persons), who "permanently occupy (colonization...? )" people (considered collectively i.e. a state), a "fixed territory i.e. state" which at law is considered country. So a community of people is state, and also a country or nation.

A state is also a REPUBLIC. Republic is also a noun. The definition of republic is "a state "in which supreme power is held by the people" and their "elected" (we elect them to office, or power.. so WE , the people/states have the REAL power) representatives, and which has an elected or nominated president (Governor) rather than a monarch" i.e. King.

Now you know why the STATES / Republics of the United States of America (Al Moroc) have the "supreme power" (invested in them through us [Citizens]) to make their own laws... states are republics.
Remember that ditty in school they made you stand and sing while saluting their banner of Amity and Commerce (misnomer-ed a flag)... "and to the REPUBLIC (state), for which it STANDS (condition), ONE NATION (a collective of people/individual states forming ONE STATE and/or NATION (a state is also a Republic) under God (Christian influence - Spanish Inquisition/European Colonization)...".

I can take it deeper, and get into Papal Bulls, treaties, constitutions, etc..., but I'm going to let you chew on this for awhile. A lot to digest and assimilate.

Now can you see the importance of nationality, and the importance of what the European created for himself... because we Moors fell asleep?

Let's move on.

Legal "Standing" is important to show you because it ties into Constitutional Law as well. Legal "Standing" is a requirement of Article III (3) of the United States Constitution.

Article III (3) Section II (2) specifically includes protections for from abuse from for foreign States, Citizens, or Subjects... Moors! Moors were the Subjects of the Emperor of Morocco. The Emperor of Morocco, prior to the fall of the Alhambra (Red House) in Granada, Andalusia (Spain) - 1492, Dominions included ALL OF AMERICA, North, Central, South, Canada, Mexico, plus the adjoining Atlantic Islands. Evidence of this found inscribed on the Bourne Stone. So the United States Constitution, along with the Treaty of Peace and Friendship (which is Supreme Law over the Constitution, as the de Jure government was the Moroccan Empire, and the United States, which would always be the de facto government to Moroccan Empire, as Morocco was the LAND (America) / Dominion (Maghreb Al Aqsa - which means "Morocco, the Farthest West", or "the farthest land of the setting sun", or "the westernmost land of Islam".

Here is a quick video (below) from a Harvard Graduate stating that is it known that the America is Morocco, the Maghreb Al Aqsa. Enjoy :)

Article III (3) Section II (2) states:

The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority;-to all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public ministers and Consuls;-to all Cases of admiralty and maritime Jurisdiction;-to Controversies to which the United States shall be a Party;-to Controversies between two or more States;-between a State and Citizens of another State;-between Citizens of different States;-between Citizens of the same State claiming Lands under Grants of different States, and between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects.

In all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls, and those in which a State shall be Party, the Supreme Court shall have original Jurisdiction. In all the other Cases before mentioned, the Supreme Court shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact, with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress shall make.

The Trial of all Crimes, except in Cases of Impeachment, shall be by Jury; and such Trial shall be held in the State where the said Crimes shall have been committed; but when not committed within any State, the Trial shall be at such Place or Places as the Congress may by Law have directed.

Now you can see why Eisenhower repealed Chapter 2: Consular Courts, Sections 141-143 of Unite States Code, Title 22, Foreign Relations and Intercourse, in 1956, ch. 807, 70 Stat. 774. Moors were protected, as long as they declare themselves Moors, and could prove their claim, the Consuls of Morocco had de Jure jurisdiction, by the power invested in the United States Constitution, and the Treaty of Peace and Friendship.

And contrary to popular belief, the Treaty and Peace and Friendship was not protection for the Moors, it was protection for The United States of America doing business in Morocco (the Kingdom and the Dominions of the Sultan of Morocco - Americas). The treaty granted immunity from piracy by The Barbary States, and allowed The United States of America safe passage in all the seaports of the Dominion, which allowed the U.SA. to do business with foreign nations unmolested at sea. The Moors were the hired help! We were protecting them. They weren't protecting us. This is the reason for United States citizens needing a Passport. It's your ticket to safe passage around the world.

Here is the definition of Passport. A maritime document carried by a merchant vessel (commerce), issued by one's own government, as evidence of her nationality. You see the nationality? Okay. Just checking, but let's jump to the definition in American Law.

In American Law, a passport is a "special instrument" intended for the "protection" of American vessels against the Barbary Powers, usually called a "Mediterranean pass".

So, now you can see the earlier connection with the Treaty of Peace and Friendship, and the Sultan of Morocco offering his protection to the United States (Corporation Company) doing business at Morocco (America/Al Moroc and the Kingdom of Morocco, as distinct from the Empire) and within his Dominions and seaports (the American continent, North, Central, South, Canada, and Mexico, - so the land itself , the adjoining Atlantic Islands, and in the Mediterranean.

You can also see the relation of the United States being a corporation doing business, as a passport in American Law is intended for a merchant vessel. Merchants do business. Business is commerce. Sailing to the Mediterranean is foreign interest. Politics.

CASE CLOSED.

Like I said earlier, as an United States citizen, a passport is your sea-pass to travel around world. We already know a person is a people, and people are human beings... so persons moving around place to place is you. We know this to be true because a competent officer, officer being the operative word, is distinguished different from a person or employee. To get the full grasp of that, you will have to look up the definition of officer in a law book to see the distinctions. A little bit of homework. I know the difference. YOU should too!

Are we having fun yet? Lol. Honestly, I am just scratching the surface. I could break this down on deeper levels, with so many more documents. The same politics that have been going on since the Spanish Inquisition, and The Doctrine of Discovery are the same politics that are going on today.

Now I am going to show you that there are two (2) national governments in operation at the same time through the Preamble to the Constitution, and then I am going to show you the case law argued before the Supreme Court, and the Justices response that confirms my statement... so you have no doubts these are the facts.

The Preamble to the Constitution reads:

We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

First, lets look at the distinction between United States and United States of America, because without understanding that the United States is "united people" collectively forming a nation, and being that a nation already existed in the land the United States of America was granted permission to do business on or at (the American continent), you can see the correlation between the de Jure government (Master) and the de facto (something done afterward) government (Subordinate). We the People is the existing nation recognizing the new nation's Constitution, for United States of America "in order to...". It reads as if the United States of America is conferring this power to the United States of America, but remember that during this transition, George Washington, the appointed executive of the new government, was in correspondence with the Sultan of Morocco, asking for a grace period for the United States to pay their tribute.

You can find a copy of the letter in the Library of Congress. Just type in letter from George Washington to Sidi Mohammed dated December 1, 1789. More homework. :)

I will now show you the Supreme Court Case where it was stated that 2 national governments exist.

Downes v. Bidwell, 182 U.S. 244 (1901) Page 182. U.S. 380

Bingo! Chief Justice Webster states, "that we have in this country substantially or practically two (2) national governments, one to be maintained under the Constitution (de jure government) with all its RESTRICTIONS, the other to be maintained by Congress OUTSIDE and INDEPENDENTLY of that instrument (the Constitution for the United States of America), by EXERCISING SUCH POWERS AS OTHER NATIONS OF THE EARTH are accustomed to exercise.

He then states, in other words, that it is treason for the Congress to operate outside of the Constitution, because the American system is their glory, the glue that makes them a nation. And who was the first nation to recognize the United States of America as a country or nation? Morocco. The de jure government is Morocco. The land is Morocco. The people are Al Moroccans / Americans ... hence America.

To cement this even further, look up the definition of MOSLEM LAW in Black' Law Dictionary, 4th Edition. See what it says. You will be quite surprised.

Also, refer to the correspondence of John Adams in the Treaty of Tripoli, 1796, where he states in the Preamble to Article 11 that, "As the government of the United States of America IS NOT IN ANY SENSE FOUNDED on the Christian Religion." The reason being it was founded on Moslem Law. You will understand this better once you look up the definition.

So, this admission from Justice Weber confirmed that even in 1901, 112 years later after the letter from George Washington to Sultan Sidi Mohammed, The REPUBLIC form of government that existed in America before the recognition of the government of the United States of America still EXISTED.

This case is also significant because it revisits Dred Scot v. Sanford, 19 How . 393.

The court held that, "he (Scot) was not, and was not included under the word "citizens" in the Constitution, and therefore could claim "none of the rights and privileges which that instrument provides for and secures to citizens of the United States;" that it did not follow, because he had all the rights and privileges of a citizen of a state, he must be a citizen of the United States; that no state could by any law of its own "introduce a new member into the political community created by the Constitution;" that the "African race" was not intended to be included, and formed no part of the people who framed and adopted the Declaration of Independence.

So there goes your 13th and 14th Amendments out the window. They are in direct contradiction of one another. One says that slavery or involuntary servitude shall not permitted in the United States, except being punishable by crime, in other words, once you are convicted of a crime you become subject to slavery or involuntary servitude, meaning not your own volition to do so. While the other says, "in order to form a more perfect union, establish justice, insure Domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty for ourselves and our posterity...".

So, if the Supreme Court upheld that the "African" race formed "no part of the people who framed the Declaration of Independence - July 4, 1776" (Europeans) were citizens, and they were never intended to be, then the 13th Amendment - passed Jan. 31, 1865, to the Constitution of The United States of America - 1789, is rendered ineffective, meaning "Africans" and/or slaves (property) had no rights, and therefore had no STANDING (at law). Basically saying that Scot had no grounds to file suit in a court because of his status - standing, state or condition.

So, no... the 13th Amendment did not abolish slavery in any sense, but added a provision to obscure its own merit by allowing the continuation of slavery and involuntary servitude masked by "criminal" statutes. This was how the United States of America remain in control of the Moors estate (The Americas). Anyone calling themselves out of their national (inherited) name i.e. black people, African (denotes continent... not country of origin... making you state- less or nation-less) American, Indian, colored, negro, or other nom de guerre (war names - we are still under occupation - Prisoners of War in our own lands), are non-descend-able heirs to their estate. Remember Civiliter Mortuus? Civilly dead: dead in the eyes of the law, means you have given up all your civil rights.

Now do you understand why they ask you if you voluntarily give up "your rights" when you PLEA out in court? They can't lawfully make you non-descend-able because you are the rightful heir, but if you enter into agreement (contract), the contract by law is LEGALLY BINDING. It's a mere formality in behalf of the court to excuse themselves of any wrongdoing. Because KNOWINGLY, and WILLING-FULLY entered into the plea, you are party to the contract... hence servitude is executed by sentencing.

In truth this is fraud, treason even, because contract law stipulates there can be nothing hidden, and both parties must be made aware of all stipulations the contract implies. If you were not made aware, then the contract is fraud, and deemed invalid, dead in the eyes of the law. Fraud has no statute of limitations. So, they get you to agree to a lighter sentence to enter into their legally binding contract which renders you to involuntary servitude. FACTS!

I could get into the Cestui Que Vie - Trusts of 1540 and 1666, which by the way is how Rome converted the Moors estate... through escheat... and they now they having us paying mortgages (mort means dead and you become the pledge), and rents to live on our own land. And I haven't gotten to Noble Drew Ali yet.

Do you want more? If so, leave your thoughts and comments and I will update the post. If, you want to unravel the mystery some more... I'm game (connotatively speaking). Just let me know... I'll do a Part 2 update.

Love, Truth, Peace, Freedom, Justice.

Islam.

M.B. Bey

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